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Atrahasis
09-04-2008, 14:46
"Magic weapons used to attack him count as mundane weapons of the same type whilst the spell lasts."

Scenario : Character with Sword of Might attacks a wizard with Pha's in play on himself, the Sword becomes mundane. The character flees, and subsequently rallies. Pha's stays in play for the rest of the game. Is the Sword of Might mundane for the rest of the game?

Masque
09-04-2008, 14:56
It would seem so. How did you think this up? I can't imagine it actually came up in a game...

Fletcher
09-04-2008, 14:58
I wouldn't think the weapon would remain mundane as the character wielding it is no longer attacking the wizard as soon as the wizard flees.

I think the main problem with the phrasing is the word 'used'. Does it refer to weapons being 'used' or that were 'used' and for the sake of the game and logic i would say that it is weapons being 'used' to attack the wizard.

Atrahasis
09-04-2008, 15:04
How did you think this up? I can't imagine it actually came up in a game...I'm writing an Empire list for a tournament (actually 2) this weekend.

I was just reading through the lores to get a feel for how I want the wizards to work in the army (and comparing Flaming Sword, Bear's Anger, and Pha's) and the wording struck me as odd :)

DeathlessDraich
09-04-2008, 15:46
1) spell remains in play = effects of the spell remains in play - 2nd column pg110

2) The effect in question is "magic weapons used to *attack him* counts as etc"

This effect only applies when a magic weapon is used to attack the 'spell bearer' - the character the spell has been cast on.

If the same magic weapon is used to attack a different unit (insubsequent turns) it still has its magical properties.

Good luck in the tournament and do accept your opponent's wrong rules interpretation:D

Caboose123
09-04-2008, 17:28
Very confusing post DD....

Anyway yes, that is an odd situation and looks correct.

(In an empire list i would always choose light or beasts for lores...)