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miker1
09-04-2009, 14:34
Has Lurz got the "Pathfinders" rule? Which he cannot pass on...

Does the rulebook mention Epic Heroes leaving/joining formations and how a spell on the formation effects them - when they can only move before a formation moves, which is well before spells.....?

Emissary
09-04-2009, 15:03
I think it's done for completeness and if anything changes later. They're basically covering the bases as they go so they won't have to errata stuff if they decide to expand the system.

Personally, I'm glad that heroes don't pass along their abilities to their companies/formations. It could make for some really bastardly combos if they could. Spirit grasp+greatweapons and so on.

Sarah S
09-04-2009, 15:55
Or Dain with his "Evil-Bane."

FuzzyOrb
09-04-2009, 18:17
I called GW on that matter. They said that the rule is only there for fluff reasons. But i think that Emissary is also right with what he says.

Spider-pope
12-04-2009, 11:34
Its there to cover future expansions and avoid having the FAQ the heck out of the main book. Same reason why Ringwraiths have Terror etc. that they cant pass on.

takaetun
12-04-2009, 11:51
Except, y'know, that they can pass Terror on, as we worked out in that disgustingly large thread/argument before.

As a prediction, I'm going to guess that we'll see GW saying that special rules pass on to the company that a character is in and no other, which would be fine by me.

Gaargod
12-04-2009, 12:09
What i want to know is why does Black Dart remove D3-2 (to a minimum of 1) might points if he's doing its normal effects. In what way is D3-2 ever going to anything but 1?

Jo Bennett
12-04-2009, 12:24
Maybe it means leave a minimum of 1 might points rather than take a minimum of one?

takaetun
12-04-2009, 12:46
That's a... damned good question, actually. Only thing I can think of is you roll the D6 and minus 2, then use that result, but... that kinda is a weird way of phrasing it. That is odd. =/

Hellfury
12-04-2009, 12:58
What i want to know is why does Black Dart remove D3-2 (to a minimum of 1) might points if he's doing its normal effects. In what way is D3-2 ever going to anything but 1?

Its a good question, but easily answered.

You have three possible outcomes when rolling a D3. 1, 2 or 3.

The way they wrote it implies that even if you roll a 1 or a 2 (subtracting 2 from the result) that no matter what you always will remove one might point.

Now I agree that they could have just said it removes a single might point, instead of all that.

But perhaps there is someway of reducing a roll like that in the future that could possibly reduce a result of 3 to a 0. This would prevent that from occurring as it will always remove a minimum of one might.

But then again, they might have just made a simple editing error because the other three results of black dart also state the 'minimum of 1' repeatedly. I find this to be very likely.

Sarah S
12-04-2009, 15:08
Oh, I think you guys are misunderstanding that.

It removes a number of might points from the target, but it can't remove the last might point.

So the target is left with "a minimum of 1" might point regardless of how many he had left, and how high you roll.

mangustheix
12-04-2009, 18:15
I read it like Sarah S did, it is D3-2 might points removed, but cannot take the target's total might points below 1. so you have a 1/3 change of taking off a might point.

Sarah S
12-04-2009, 18:18
No, wait, on returning to it, it doesn't make any sense interpreted like that.

It uses the same language for inflicting hits, and it makes no sense in that regard.
So it does make them lose at least one might point and since d3-2 is always 1 or less, it always only inflicts a single might point, but it can make a hero lose all their might points if possible.

FuzzyOrb
12-04-2009, 18:28
It removes a number of might points from the target, but it can't remove the last might point.


No, i don't think that this is the case, because in the sentence beforehand, when it talks about the hits that the hero takes, they also give the "down to a minimum of 1" phrase and they are clearly talking about the number of hits. So, i think because of that context, the hero is always to lose at least 1 might point.
The reason why they used that D3 thing here iis that a D3 is far more easily manipulatable by might. They even tell you to note this in the following sentence.

If you roll a 1, the hero loses 1 might point, but it would take the caster 3 might points to have the victim lose an additional might point.

If you roll a 2, the hero loses 1 might point, but it would take the caster 2 might points to have the victim lose an additional might point.

If you roll a 3, the hero loses 1 might point, but it would take the caster 1 might point to have the victim lose an additional might point.

I hope you could still follow:).

Sarah S
12-04-2009, 18:31
Yeah. I already corrected myself. ;)