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Syndtristleit
30-03-2011, 14:28
I hope this hasnt been threaded before.

In the 8th edition you can only have one of each non-signature spell/army right?

So you roll for spells and if you have two wizards and one of them roll the same spell as the other, he can then choose a spell from the lore right? (assuming they use the same lore).

But then what happens if you have a wizard who is a loremaster for the same lore as another wizard in the same army? Or if you have 4 or more lvl 2 wizards in one army?

And who roll spells first?


Hope someone can answer. I dont have the book yet.

Duke_of_Krondor
30-03-2011, 14:34
Right.

If you recieve spells (from loremaster) or are allowed to choose (sig spells) or just get it (drain magic - h.elves, invocation of nehek, etc) then they do not count against spells you'd then roll randomly for. It's only random rolls that draw from that pool.

Hope that's clear enough

Syndtristleit
30-03-2011, 17:05
Ok. So if i have a Slann who is loremaster in the lore of heavens I can still have, say, chain lightning with my skink priest if he rolls it when choosing spells?

narrativium
30-03-2011, 17:16
There are two kinds of spell generation. The spells you generate by random means cannot include duplicates. Any spells generated otherwise (e.g. player choice of spells, loremaster) may duplicate spells you've acquired through random means. It's that simple.

FestHest
30-03-2011, 17:16
Yes, just pretend the loremaster isn't there when rolling for spells.

Ultimate Life Form
30-03-2011, 17:17
That is right.

And yes, there have been approximately 173974913749 threads on this topic. :evilgrin:

FestHest
30-03-2011, 17:19
Was that with or without this one? :-)

Masque
01-04-2011, 07:01
I think I may have just thought of a new spin on this subject.

First of all, I think most people would agree that spells you pick don't prevent another wizard from rolling that spell randomly. Keep that in mind.

I have two level 2 Lore of Beasts wizards.
The first one rolls double 1s for his spells so he needs to get rid of one.
He now gets to pick a spell, let's say he picks number 6, Transformation of Kadon.
The second wizard rolls 2 and 6 for his spells.
He keeps them.

Now I can have two Great Fire Dragons without a single loremaster in sight.

Lorcryst
01-04-2011, 09:34
I thought that when rolling multiple, identical results you had to reroll one of the dice ?

So in your example, one of those '1' have to be rerolled until you have two different spells generated at random, and then do the same thing for the second wizard ?

I might be wrong tough.

Jerubaal
01-04-2011, 10:17
That was 7th Ed, wasn't it?
Now you get to choose when you get a duplicate.
So, the first Wizard rolls 1 & 1 so can swap to end up with 1 & 6.
The second wizard rolls 2 & 6, so HAS to swap the 6 for something else, because the first wizard has it and can no longer change spells.

Zed!
01-04-2011, 11:37
Masque's argument is as follows: the first Wizard randomly rolled 1 and 1. However, this grants him the ability to actually pick a spell, since he has rolled a duplicate. Picking a spell is definitely not randomly selecting a spell. Hence, while the first Wizard has gotten spell #1 by random means, spell #6 was gotten non-randomly. Hence, spell #1 cannot be duplicated, but spell #6 can be duplicated.

RanaldLoec
01-04-2011, 12:12
It's April fools not Easter so let's leave the Easter egg hunt be for the time being.

hamsterwheel
01-04-2011, 15:45
I think I may have just thought of a new spin on this subject.

First of all, I think most people would agree that spells you pick don't prevent another wizard from rolling that spell randomly. Keep that in mind.

I have two level 2 Lore of Beasts wizards.
The first one rolls double 1s for his spells so he needs to get rid of one.
He now gets to pick a spell, let's say he picks number 6, Transformation of Kadon.
The second wizard rolls 2 and 6 for his spells.
He keeps them.

Now I can have two Great Fire Dragons without a single loremaster in sight.

Nice catching the loophole. I've triple checked the RAW and he's 100% correct from a RAW perspective, although from the text you can tell that this isn't intended.

Kalandros
01-04-2011, 17:24
Thats just a ridiculous interpretation, not RAW.

hamsterwheel
01-04-2011, 19:19
Thats just a ridiculous interpretation, not RAW.

Well the rulebook outlines how spell generation is done. The player picks a wizard to generate spells from a lore. The player then rolls a number of dice equal to the wizard's level to show what spell he generates.

In the example that Masque gave the first wizard rolled two 1s.

Page 490 in the rulebook.
"Otherwise, if you roll a spell twice (whether for the same Wizard or for a different Wizard in your army) you must normally replace the duplicate spell with another of your choice from the same Lore."

The player then decides that the first wizard will have spells 1 and 6. Notice that he chose spell number 6.

The player then rolls for the second wizard and rolls a 2 and 6.

Notice the section I quoted earlier. It starts with "Otherwise, if you roll a spell twice". Well spell number 6 was only rolled once so I don't have to choose another spell. The second wizard can remain with spell number 6.

If you have anything in RAW that can dispute this then please post.

Kalandros
02-04-2011, 01:52
Even though you picked the spell - you actually rolled to select it.
You're not allowed twice the same spell from wizards that generate spells by rolling - even if the rolling result allows you to pick a spell instead, you still rolled for that free selection.

Stop trying to abuse of possible rules loopholes from a farfetched interpretation.

AMWOOD co
02-04-2011, 02:13
The example in the magic section of selecting spells concludes with an 'if' scenario of another wizard being present. Even though a spell has been selecting because of a double, it is stated that the spell may not be taken again by the second wizard.

This shows the intention of the selection from a double scenario: it does count towards having the spell in your army.