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Berkinator
18-07-2011, 15:15
It states on page 39 of the VC rulebook that the curse of years spell will cause a wound on a 6, and then it will activate again "at the end of the next magic phase." My question is, does this mean it will activate at the end of my opponents magic phase also, since it is the next magic phase? or only mine?
Thanks in advance for your replies

narrativium
18-07-2011, 16:38
Your opponent's magic phase too. This gives your opponent more incentive to dispel it in your turn; it's going to hurt him in his turn before he gets his next chance to dispel it.

Some ambiguities such as this can be solved by reading similar rules and observing the phrasing. For example, a number of spells last until the caster's next magic phase. The next magic phase means just that - the next magic phase to happen, regardless of which player's turn it is.

The bearded one
18-07-2011, 17:51
it's going to hurt him in his turn before he gets his next chance to dispel it.

Curse of years is a 'remains in play', right? Remains in play spells can be dispelled at any point in either your own or your opponent's magic phase, with power or dispel dice, so it can be dispelled before it activates at the end of the targetted player's magic phase. Page 36 BRB

Borgnine
18-07-2011, 21:28
The bearded dude is right!

narrativium
18-07-2011, 23:47
In my defence, absent rulebooks, I thought it was a 'start of magic phase' thing. I'm either confusing it with another spell or just confused.