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Magistrate
30-04-2007, 17:47
We ran into a problem the other day playing Necromunda. The guy I was playing against believed that he had to split his melee attacks up between the two weapons he had and after a search of the rulebook we saw that nowhere, though he insisted on using his conception of how melee was resolved. IIRC you simply designate a weapon for your attacks, such as in 40k, unless you intend to Parry. Is this correct?

Major_Gilbear
30-04-2007, 18:35
I don't think so, no; see page 24 under the heading "Hits".

You need to differentiate between the attacks that you get to acheive a the best score you can, and the hits that you get in CC as a result of your combat resolution (which uses your best-scoring attack roll).

If you are fighting with two CC weapons, then each blow landed in CC is assumed to be with alternate weapons. It is left to the owning player to decide any odd hits.

E.g.: Brak and Gungg are in CC. Brak has a maul and a lasgun, so only gets one type of attack in CC. This attack he makes is with the maul. Gungg has a bolt pistol and a knife. He gets two types of attacks, one with the bolt pistol, and one with the knife. To determine combat resolution, Brak rolls one dice, whereas Gungg rolls two.
Gungg wins the combat using his highest-scoring dice roll, and scores three hits. One hit is with the bolt pistol, another with the knife. Any odd hits that Gungg gets are made with either the bolt pistol or the knife at the owning player's discretion. In this instance, it would be a good idea to make the odd hit with the bolt pistol!
If on another occasion, and in another fight, Brak wins and scores two hits on Gungg, they'd both be with his maul.

If both the weapons that a combatant is using are the same, or have the same stats, then clearly there'd be no need to take alternate hits as they would all be rolled with the same result (even though it would still be assumed that the fighter is striking with alternating weapons).

Hope that makes a bit more sense!

Magistrate
30-04-2007, 20:17
Right, so if you have two weapons that are the same STR value then you don't divide them up. If they have different STR values then you assign your odd numbered hits to the other weapon, preferably the lower STR one?

Major_Gilbear
30-04-2007, 20:46
Again, no.

Combat works like this:

1> Both combatants roll all their attack dice.
2> Parrys and other re-rolls are used.
3> Each combatant picks their best dice roll and adds any relevant modifiers (eg, charging) plus their WS.
4> Compare scores. Highest wins, lowest loses. Draws are won by highest initative.
5> Hits that the winner makes on the loser are equal to the difference in scores. Wins from draws grant one hit.
6> Each hit the winner makes is with an alternate weapon (if he has two). Odd hits can be allocated to either weapon by their user.
7> Odd hits are best allocated to the stronger/more damaging weapon.
8> Each hit that you make rolls to wound.
9> Each wound has a chance of being saved (assuming the loser has armour and that the modifiers of the wounding weapons allow him to make one).
10> Each successful wound is rolled on the Injury chart to see of he suffers flesh wounds, goes down or goes out.

>If you are a ganger with a single CC weapon, then all your hits (if you win) are with the same weapon. Doesn't matter if you score one, two or three hits, it is the same weapon that the ganger is pounding you with.
>If you are a S3 ganger with a bolt pistol and maul, then all your hits to wound will have a S4 and a -1Sv, so it makes no difference which weapon you allocate odd hits to.
>If you have a ganger with a Stubgun loaded with DumDums and a bolt pistol, then you would want odd hits to be taken with the bolt pistol (same strength, but better armour save modifier).
>In the third example, if you are hitting an enemy with no amour, it would make no difference which weapon scores the odd hits as there is no armour to save against.
>Finally, if you have two weapons that are identical, say two mauls, then it makes no difference under any circumstances which hits are allocated to which; thay are all rolled together. Fluff-wise the ganger is still alternating hits, it's just that game-wise they are identical attacks so it makes no sense to differentiate them from each other.

Angelwing
01-05-2007, 16:29
to further complicate things, remember if the ganger in question has an arm wound, reducing his strength. so, if you had say, two swords, you would alternate between full strength and reduced strength hits.

Major_Gilbear
01-05-2007, 18:43
The main problem is that many new players that join Necro from 40k get (1) and (5) mixed up.
This is because you only use on of your attack dice to determine your hits in Necro, but all your attack dice to determine hits in 40k.
It's no surprise that streamlining 3rd and 4th editions of 40k by chopping out much of that sequence helps to shave hours off games!

nightgant98c
06-05-2007, 19:36
As a house rule, we just do it 40k style, to make it easier and quicker.

Major_Gilbear
06-05-2007, 19:59
Uh, which edition of 40k?

I ask as I understand Magistrate is fairly new to Necro, and from his the questions he's asked I don't think he'd be familiar with 2nd Ed... If you meant 3rd or 4th Ed, I'm not really sure how that would make it easier?

nightgant98c
08-05-2007, 01:47
I should have been a bit more specific, even though the Necromunda hth rules are the second edition ones pretty much. I meant the current version of 40k, where all attacks are counted as the same weapon. So if you have a power sword, all hits are resolved at s5, if you have a power fist, they are all at s8.