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Benigno (WE)
02-04-2021, 21:44
Hello all!

We've been discussing at my 40k group about this stratagem:
243245

and the issue was about if you use d6 to roll d3 as stated in the core book, does a 1-2 roll in the d6 pass automatically the morale test or will that only happen with a 1 on the d6 despite you are dividing it by half?

The arguments were that dividing by half is a modifier and then only a natural 1 on the dice roll would pass the morale test, but some others say that the d3 calculations are not a modification and both rolls, 1 and 2 must be considered a roll of one and pass the morale test automatically.

What are your thoughts? Is there a FAQ somewhere to clarify this?

Thanks!

Commissar von Toussaint
04-04-2021, 17:49
Hello all!

We've been discussing at my 40k group about this stratagem:
243245

and the issue was about if you use d6 to roll d3 as stated in the core book, does a 1-2 roll in the d6 pass automatically the morale test or will that only happen with a 1 on the d6 despite you are dividing it by half?

The arguments were that dividing by half is a modifier and then only a natural 1 on the dice roll would pass the morale test, but some others say that the d3 calculations are not a modification and both rolls, 1 and 2 must be considered a roll of one and pass the morale test automatically.

What are your thoughts? Is there a FAQ somewhere to clarify this?

Thanks!

GW rules disputes are second to none in their sheer strangeness.

Even without knowing anything other than the text offered, it is clear that whatever the normal morale rules are, the result requirements aren't changed by switching dice.

Thus if you need a 1 to succeed, you still need a one, you're just using smaller dice.

GW does this all the time (or at least did), allowing extra dice to be thrown and letting players pick which ones to count, or giving bonus range based on additional dice being added.

Clear language is not one of GW's strong suits, but this one is pretty easy to figure out.

Rogue
30-04-2021, 20:38
Hello all!

We've been discussing at my 40k group about this stratagem:
243245

and the issue was about if you use d6 to roll d3 as stated in the core book, does a 1-2 roll in the d6 pass automatically the morale test or will that only happen with a 1 on the d6 despite you are dividing it by half?

The arguments were that dividing by half is a modifier and then only a natural 1 on the dice roll would pass the morale test, but some others say that the d3 calculations are not a modification and both rolls, 1 and 2 must be considered a roll of one and pass the morale test automatically.

What are your thoughts? Is there a FAQ somewhere to clarify this?

Thanks!

I still have the downloaded rules but on Page 5 it states what a D3 means which is as quoted "D3=D6 divided by 2 (rounding up)." I would contend that a roll of 1 and 2 equals 1, 3 and 4 equals 2, and a 5 and 6 equals a 3.

MadHatter
02-07-2021, 23:36
I still have the downloaded rules but on Page 5 it states what a D3 means which is as quoted "D3=D6 divided by 2 (rounding up)." I would contend that a roll of 1 and 2 equals 1, 3 and 4 equals 2, and a 5 and 6 equals a 3.


My gaming group would count 1-2 =1. 3-4 =2, 5-6= 3. so yes, 1 and 2 mean the pass. since technically there would be no 4, 5, 6. you could order a custom D3. and solve the problem altogether.